DOES FOREKNOWLEDGE EXPLAIN ELECTION?
By Roger Smalling, D.Min
The term 'Election' occurs frequently in the New Testament, referring to God's
choice of some for salvation. All Christians hold to a doctrine of election
since it is a biblical word. The notion of God choosing some for salvation
and not others is so clear throughout the entire Bible that no serious student
of Scripture denies it. Contention occurs, however, when we ask what is basis
of God's choice? Two answers exist within the Christian community. The first
view holds that Election has no basis whatever in man. It is a mystery, hidden
forever in God's sovereign will. Though God is not arbitrary in his decrees,
nevertheless the decree of Election is a righteous one since no one deserves
salvation anyway. This view is frequently called 'Reformed', because it was
prominent during the Reformation period and is held today by those churches
who identity their theology as 'Reformed.' The second view claims divine 'foreknowledge'
as the basis for Election. God supposedly looks into the future and notices
who will accept Christ and 'elects' those. This view is normally called 'Arminian',
after the Dutch pastor in the 16th century, Arminius, who invented the doctrine
toward the end of the Reformation period. Because the meaning of foreknowledge,
when used of divine decisions, it carries the connotation of 'appointed.'
It therefore means something like 'foreordained' in connection with Election.
It is the person who is 'foreknown', or 'appointed' to salvation, not some
quality in the person. The evidence is:
Foreknowledge was determinative and not merely predictive in the coming of
Christ. 1.Acts 2:23, "Him, being delivered by the determined purpose and foreknowledge
of God, ...." Here, "determined purpose" and "foreknowledge" are linked by
a greek grammatical form called the Granville-Sharp Rule. This makes the two
nouns synonymous for emphasis, like saying "right and good" or "evil and wrong."
The word "determined" here is formed of the same verb from which "predestination"
is derived. Peter declares the coming of Christ was both arranged and appointed
by God. 2.I Peter 1:20, "He indeed was foreordained before the foundation
of the world..." The word "foreordained" here is PROGINOSKO - "foreknow".
Note that in the case of Christ that God's foreknowledge was more than merely
predictive. It would be absurd to say that the Father merely "foreknew" the
coming of Christ. Jesus was appointed to the office of Christ. All circumstances
relating to His coming were arranged in advance. History was made for Him,
not He for history. Acts 4:27-28 "For truly against Your holy Servant Jesus,
whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles and the
people of Israel, were gathered together to do whatever Your hand and Your
purpose determined before to be done. The same principles apply to the election
of the believer. A favorite text of opponents to Election is I Peter 1:2.
"Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father....." (verse 2). "Foreknowledge"
in verse 3 and "foreordained" in verse 20 are the same word, and mean the
same thing. In verse 20, it refers to Jesus himself in his appointment as
redeemer. In verse 2 it also refers to an appointment, in this case of believers
appointed to obedience. (Notice he says for obedience, not because of obedience.)
Peter wishes all to understand that God has appointed the elect for obedience
just as he appointed Jesus as redeemer. Any other interpretation fails to
explain the usage of the same word in the same context, and would create an
absurdity with regard to Christ.
Foreknowledge means "foreordained" with regard to Israel, because God ignored
Israel's persistent rebellion. Romans 11:2 "God has not cast away His people
whom He foreknew". What was it that God "foreknew" about the Jews? That they
would respond favorably to Him by their free will? Hardly! Notice the context.
"But to Israel he says: 'All day long I have stretched out My Hands to a disobedient
and contrary people.'" Romans 10:21 If the foreknowledge view were correct,
then God should have rejected the Jews as candidates for Election. Foreseen
obedience had nothing to do with God's election of Israel. 1. Lexicon Evidence:
1.Foreknowledge: The Greek terms are PROGINOSKO (verb: to know or ordain before
hand) and PROGINOSIS (noun: foreknowledge or foreordination). It is common
for words in any language to have two or more meanings, usually a primary
meaning and then a secondary. Such is the case with PROGINOSIS. The primary
is "foreknowledge", the secondary is "foreordination". How do we distinguish
the difference? It is "foreordained" when Divine appointments and activity
are in view, as in the above scriptures. This holds true also to our appointments
as believers to the office and function of God's elect. 1.Gingrich's Shorter
Lexicon: PROGINOSKO: Know beforehand or choose beforehand. 2.Newman's Greek-English
Dictionary: PROGINOSKO: know already; choose from the beginning, choose beforehand.
4. Louw & Nida: PROGINOSKO: Know beforehand or Chose beforehand. There exists
no good quality in man to foresee.
The foreknowledge view normally asserts that God foresees one of several qualities
in man which attract His grace.
Was it faith He foresaw? Hardly! Faith itself is a work of grace based on
election according to Acts 13:47. And as many as had been appointed to eternal
life believed. Acts 18:27 those who had believed through grace; Jesus Christ
himself is the source of our faith. 1Tim. 1:14 And the grace of our Lord was
exceedingly abundant, with faith and love which are in Christ Jesus. Was it
perhaps our sanctification that God foresaw? It depends on who does the sanctifying.
According to Jude 1, God the Father does it. To those who are called, sanctified
by God the Father, and preserved in Jesus Christ: Circular reasoning would
come into play here if foreknowledge of our sanctification were the cause
of election. What about a willing heart? Paul explicitly denies this in Romans
9:16 So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who
shows mercy. Could some goodness or righteousness in man be the quality God
foresaw? Paul goes to great lengths in Romans 3 to kill this notion. There
is none who does good, no, not one." "There is none righteous, no, not one;"
V.10 "There is none who does good, no, not one." V.12 Was it because God foresaw
some would seek him and some would not? "There is none who understands; There
is none who seeks after God." Ro.3:11 It is persons God foresees (appoints),
not some good quality in them. Because foreknowledge does not tempt people
to blame God for unfairness. Any doctrine which fails to do this must be rejected
according to Romans 9:19-20. The very reason why many accept foreknowledge
as an explanation of Election is actually strong reason for rejecting it.
We call this a 'paradox proof.' Its intent is to refute the other view, but
it refutes itself instead. Foreknowledge does not lead a person to ask "Then
why does God still blame us? For who resists his will?" verse 19 NIV. If Paul
felt that foreknowledge were a factor, then why didn't he say so instead of
concluding that it is none of man's business to ask such questions? "But who
are you, Oh man, to talk back to God? Shall what is formed say to him who
formed it, Why did you make me like this? Verse 20 NIV. To discover which
of these two viewpoints, foreknowledge or Election, is the correct one, we
need only to ask ourselves which of these two seems to be the least "fair",
and we have the correct one.
The Arminian foreknowledge perverts the literal meaning of Election. 1."Election"
means chosen of God, not chosen of self. Many verses confirm this such as:
Mark 13:20 "And unless the Lord had shortened those days, no flesh would be
saved; but for the elect's sake, whom He chose, He shortened the days." I
Thessalonians 1:4 "knowing, beloved brethren, your election by God." Colossians
3:12 "Therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved," Titus 1:1 "....according
to the faith of God's elect..." The foreknowledge view renders meaningless
the scriptural examples of Election which the Apostles gave to prove the sovereignty
of God's choice. Examples: 1.The 7000 who did not bow the knee to Baal. Romans
11: 4-5 "But what does the divine response say to him? 'I have reserved for
Myself seven thousand men who have not bowed the knee to Baal.' Even so then,
at this present time there is a remnant according to the election of grace."
Notice that God did not merely "find" 7000. He "reserved" them. It was He
who was in charge of their choosing, not they themselves. Paul uses this incident
as an example of election by grace. If this is not the intent of the passage,
then what purpose does the illustration serve? 1.Jacob and Esau. Romans 9:11-
"(for the children not yet being born, nor having done any good or evil, that
the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works but of
Him who calls)," The notion of self-election is absurd.
Foreknowledge assumes that man's will is free with regard to his ability to
accept Christ and submit to God's law. The Bible denies this. 1.Man's will
is bound in sin and cannot submit to God without His grace. Romans 3:11 There
is none who understands; There is none who seeks after God. Romans 8:7 "Because
the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of
God, neither indeed can be." Romans 9:16 "So then it is not of him who wills,
nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy." 1.Coming to Christ is a
gift of the Father. John 6:37 "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me,..."
John 6:44 "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him;
John 17:9 "I pray for them. I do not pray for the world but for those whom
You have given Me, for they are Yours." 1.Faith is a gift from God, not something
generated by the believer's own will. Romans 12:3 "...as God has dealt to
each one a measure of faith. " Philippians 1:29 "For to you it has been granted
on behalf of Christ, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His
sake," Hebrews 12:2,"looking unto Jesus, the author and finisher of our faith,..."
1.Repentance is a gift, not something man is able to generate in himself without
grace. Acts 11:18 "Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to
life." II Timothy 2:25 "....if God perhaps will grant them repentance, so
that they may know the truth,..." Foreknowledge renders the term "predestination"
meaningless. It makes it passive rather than the active verb that it is. "Predestination"
is the greek word PROORIZO. PRO means "before" and "ORIZO" means to establish
boundaries. Thus it means "to establish the boundaries beforehand". God set
up the limitations of the circumstances surrounding our lives to ensure the
fulfillment of our foreordination as the Elect. If God merely "foreknew" who
would accept Him, why would He to set up any limits beforehand? This proves
the choices were His and not ours. "Foreordain" refers to our appointment
as His elect, whereas "Predestinate" refers to the outworking of God's elective
decree. Do the following verses sound passive? Ephesians 1:5 "having predestined
us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure
of His will," Romans 8:29 "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be
conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many
brethren." Romans 8:29 merits special comment. The term "foreknew" here carries
the meaning of "foreordain" because of the context. In verse 28 Paul has just
explained that all things work together for good to them that love God, to
them that are called according to His purpose. But what is the grounds for
believing this? God has already done His appointing and preparing before the
world began, to ensure the accomplishment of our salvation. That's why we
can believe that everything works together for our good. The Lexicon of Louw
& Nida translate this verse as: 'those whom he had chosen beforehand, he had
already decided should become like his Son' Ro 8:29.
Foreknowledge assumes that God is either unwilling or unable to transgress
the limits of man's will.
Bible examples to the contrary are: 1.Nebuchadnezzar, Daniel 4:28-35 As a
result of this Babylonian king's pride, God removed his sanity for seven years,
his reason, "free will" and all. Did God ask permission to do this? Nebuchadnezzar
learned that "...He does according to His will in the army of heaven And among
the inhabitants of the earth. No one can restrain His hand Or say to Him,
"What have You done?" 1.The Antichrist and the Ten Nations. Rev.17:17 "For
God has put it into their hearts to fulfill His purpose, to be of one mind,
and to give their kingdom to the beast, until the words of God are fulfilled."
2.The Egyptians, "And I indeed will harden the hearts of the Egyptians, and
they shall follow them. So I will gain honor over Pharaoh and over all his
army, his chariots, and his horsemen." Exodus 14:17 1.The Kings of the Earth.
"The king's heart is in the hand of the LORD, Like the rivers of water; He
turns it wherever He wishes." Proverbs 21:1 Foreknowledge puts the ultimate
choice on man rather than God, which the Scriptures categorically deny. Romans
9:16 "So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God
who shows mercy." John 15:16 "You did not choose Me, but I chose you and appointed
you..." Foreknowledge implies that God's control over all things is merely
passive rather than active. Isaiah 46:10 "'My counsel shall stand, And I will
do all My pleasure,'" Philippians 3:21 "...according to the working by which
He is able even to subdue all things to Himself.." Hebrews 1:3 ".....upholding
all things by the word of His power." Foreknowledge assumes that faith precedes
election. This is an error. 1.We believe because we are His sheep. It is not
our faith that makes us sheep. John 10:26 "But you do not believe, because
you are not of My sheep,..." 2.Ordaining to eternal life comes before faith,
not vice verse. Acts 13:48 And as many as had been appointed to eternal life
believed." 3.The promise of salvation is available only to as many as the
Lord calls. Acts 2:39 "For the promise is to you and to your children, and
to all who are afar off, as many as the Lord our God will call." 4.Jesus reveals
the Father to those whom He wills to do so. Matthew 12:27 "...and no one knows
the Son except the Father. Nor does anyone know the Father except the Son,
and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him." 1.See John 5:21, 6:37, 44,
45, 65; 17:6, 9, 11, 20. Conclusion: The term foreknowledge supports the doctrine
of sovereign election, rather than explains it away. When used regarding divine
activity, especially in connection with election, it refers to the appointment
of a person rather than the result of a divine attraction to a positive quality
in the person. The Bible teaches election by the sovereign grace of God, without
regard to any foreseen condition in man.
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